[INDOLOGY] Soo che? Saru che... Gujarati

[Balogh Dániel]

Dear All,
thanks one more time for your comments. I consider the problem solved; 
the only reason I'm writing yet again is to reply to Adheesh Sathaye's 
great thoughts on the issue. What you say is very close to what I've 
been thinking, though I haven't formulated my thoughts so logically. 
This goes for your points 1 to 3; I don't agree with part of your point 
4. We have a long tradition in Hungary to transliterate foreign words, 
if they come from a language that uses a non-Latin script, into the 
closest possible Hungarian phonetic approximation. (I.e. any Latin 
script is rendered as in the original language, but words from Greek, 
Russian etc. - and Indic languages - get transcribed (in works meant for 
a lay audience, not in academic writing). This is easy on the reader, 
because Hungarian spelling is almost 100% phonetic anyway, one phoneme 
corresponds to one letter and vice versa, with very few exceptions.) So 
while Rushdie's English translation will - naturally - be rendered into 
rhyming Hungarian (actually, no future tense, this has already been done 
by the first translator of the book), the Gujju-Marathi-whatever part 
will need to be transcribed according to Hungarian pronunciation.
All the best,
Daniel

---
A levél vírus, és rosszindulatú kód mentes, mert az avast! Antivirus védelme ellenőrizte azt.
http://www.avast.com