Spread of Iron usage around 1000BCE?

[Dinesh Maheshwari]

Dear Listmembers,
    Leafing through the "Historical Atlas of the Ancient World  - 4,000,000 to 500 BC"
(1998, Andromeda Oxford Ltd, compiled by John Haywood  with 18 academic advisors
from the universities spread all over the world) during a leisurely diversion,  I was
struck
by the map in section 1.05 which depicts the extent of iron working around 1000 BC to be
limited to two isolated areas -
1. Contiguous land mass in north west India and Gangetic plains
2. . Contiguous land mass in the Near East and portions of mediterranean - comprised of
the
then Assyria, Babylonia, Urartu and some areas then inhabited by the Hittites, Phrygians,
Thracians and Dorians (in a part of modern day Greece).

My questions to the listmembers are -
1. Is the depiction correct as per the archaeological evidence till 1998 ?
2. Have there been any other archaeological  discoveries since 1998 that would
warrant a change in the afore-mentioned depiction ? If yes, how ?
3. If the depiction is correct then why is there no evidence of iron usage from
the  area in between the two regions ? Were'nt there migrations and/or trade
between the two regions during the early iron age  ?
4. And why is there not any evidence of iron usage from the areas north of the
depicted areas from where the Aryans are supposed to have migrated to the
depicted areas during the iron age ?

Perhaps the questions above have already been answered before on the list;
if yes then please accept my apologies for repeating them, but  please help me find
the answers.

Thanks,
Best regards,
Dinesh Maheshwari