[INDOLOGY] privative a with finite verb?

[Matthew Kapstein]

Dear Dominik,

The alchemical use of vidh sometimes occurs in Buddhist texts; see e.g. Bodhicaryāvatāra 1.10 and its comm. : rasajātam atīva vedhanîyam. However, in the context I was concerned with, it is part of the technical vocabulary of Prajñāpāramitā and refers to intuitive penetration of the ultimate truth. This is much discussed in the Abhisamayālamkara and its comms. Perhaps there is a meta-level on which these uses are related as applying to « transformative « events.

best,
Matthew

Matthew T. Kapstein
Professor emeritus
Ecole Pratique des Hautes Etudes, PSL Research University, Paris

Associate
The University of Chicago Divinity School

Member, American Academy of Arts and Sciences

https://ephe.academia.edu/MatthewKapstein

https://vajrabookshop.com/product/the-life-and-work-of-auleshi/

https://www.cornellpress.cornell.edu/book/9781501716218/tibetan-manuscripts-and-early-printed-books-volume-i/#bookTabs=1

https://www.cornellpress.cornell.edu/book/9781501771255/tibetan-manuscripts-and-early-printed-books-volume-ii/#bookTabs=1

https://brill.com/edcollbook/title/60949

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-------- Original Message --------
On Thursday, 10/16/25 at 15:44 Dominik Wujastyk <wujastyk at gmail.com> wrote:

> Not on the privative prefix, but on the meaning of vidh, see
>
> - https://cikitsa.blogspot.com/2014/07/sanskrit-vidh-on-alchemical.html
>
> abhinandatitara,
>
> Dominik
>
> --
> Dominik Wujastyk, Professor Emeritus, Classical Indian History
> University of Alberta
>
> "The University of Alberta is committed to the pursuit of truth,
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