[INDOLOGY] Follow up to Lanman question

[Herman Tull]

As a follow-up to the Lanman question, I asked a few months back, I would
like to ask now about the extent to which Whitney's Grammar is used,
particularly outside the USA.  From my experience in American classrooms,
and among American Sanskritists, Whitney clearly has primacy as a reference
text.  Is it the same among Europeans?  (Whitney's grammar was published
simultaneously in 1879 in English and in German as Indische Grammatik
Umfassend die klassische Sprache und die älteren Dialekte
Sanskrit [translated by Zimmer].)

Thanks for your patience with (and your answers to) my terribly pedestrian
questions!

with regards,

Herman

-- 
*Herman Tull
Princeton, NJ *


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