As a follow-up to the Lanman question, I asked a few months back, I would like to ask now about the extent to which Whitney's Grammar is used, particularly outside the USA.  From my experience in American classrooms, and among American Sanskritists, Whitney clearly has primacy as a reference text.  Is it the same among Europeans?  (Whitney's grammar was published simultaneously in 1879 in English and in German as Indische Grammatik Umfassend die klassische Sprache und die älteren Dialekte Sanskrit [translated by Zimmer].) 

Thanks for your patience with (and your answers to) my terribly pedestrian questions!

with regards,

Herman