Sanskrit and PIE

[N. Ganesan]

 >Nothing atall is known about harappan or minoan language so how
 >can we say that they are non IE or non anything else.
 >I dont ride a horse to work, does that mean I dont speak IE.

Just one reason why Minoan or Harappan language is
not PIE, because PIE was confined to a relatively
compact area, far off from either Greece or NW India.
Wheeled transport technology, horses and chariots
are useful in determining this.

David Anthony, Shards of Speech, 1995, Antiquity, v. 69
"Terms for wheel, axle and draft pole, and a verb meaning
'to go or convey in a vehicle' suggest that PIE existed as
a single language after 3500 B.C., when wheeled vehicles were
invented. PIE must have begun to disintegrate before 2000 B.C.:
by 1500 B.C. three of its daughter languages - Greek, Hittite
and Indic - had become quite dissimilar. Altogether, then the
linguistic evidence points to a homeland between the Ural and
Caucasus mountains, in the centuries between 3500 and 2000 B.C."

Regards,
N. Ganesan



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