Sanskrit and PIE

[N. Ganesan]

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A footnote in J.P. Mallory (In search of the Indo-Europeans) says
that Anna Davies carried out a cursory examination of the Greek
vocabulary, which revealed that less than 40 per cent of it could
be ascribed a transparent Indo-European etymology, 8 per cent had
established non-Greek origins and about 52 per cent had no clear
etymology.

This is a footnote to the statement that "Yet the linguistic
evidence taken as a whole does indicate that the Greeks did borrow
a considerable number of elements from a non-Greek language."

The question is -- what is the equivalent statistic for
Vedic Sanskrit ?
>>>

Isn't the bronze age Greek culture (Minoan Crete) a non-IE one?
Interesting that even though the IE spread all over the world,
the earliest IE literatures recorded (Greece and Vedic) are from
regions where great non-IE cultures (IVC, for example) flourished
before the IE intrusion.

Regards,
N. Ganesan

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