Scenario of language replacement

[N. Ganesan]

About two years ago, I asked some questions in the area of
language shift to IA in India induced by Aryan migrations.
http://listserv.liv.ac.uk/cgi-shl/WA.EXE?A2=ind9901&L=indology&P=R3387
Now the date of RV is falling coinciding with the date of iron,
late portions of the RV contain iron (Witzel).

The model of "Elite Dominance" will explain what happened
in India quite well. India was pre-literate at that time.
The Aryan technology of Religion and preservation of Veda by orality
and itenerant Brahmins spreading Vedas and language and their
co-opting with the native elites producing bilinguals of few
generations would have brought about this change. Rama, Krishna
... are quite black and not "black wheatish".
The acculturation of migrating Aryans into India (RV (1000-900 BCE)
with those living has been explained in many an academic
publications (Witzel, Deshpande, Parpola, ...).

>If Colin Renfrew's idea that Indo-European languages spread in Europe along
>with agriculture then Greece, Italy or Anatolia would not be parallels to
>the ancient Indian situation either.

Renfrew model has been found faulty. I think Miguel Vidal
discussed about them in Indology long ago.

Regards,
N. Ganesan

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