[Re: Comparative linguistics]
kalyan99 at NETSCAPE.NET
Sun Mar 26 10:20:43 UTC 2000
Maniambalam Arasu <maniambalam_arasu at YAHOO.COM> wrote:
>snip> probably because Dravidian languages> got replaced with Indo-Aryan.
Yes, indeed. Prof. Satya Swarup Misra (refce. cited in earlier posting)
endorses Prof. Swaminatha Aiyer's analyses of common features betweeen Aryan
and Dravidian..."...from a linguistic point of view also, Dravidian is more
comparable to Indo-Aryan than to any other language family in the world...But
Dravidian may be the first to have been separated and went north. Next the
centum peop0le separated and left through the Himalayan passes to Caspin or
Pamir and then to Europe etc. The satem speakers left after that, batch by
bach. The last batch might have been the Iranians."
To me this is as good a hypothesis as any in comparative linguistics
(substantiation of which of course needs help from other scientific
scholarship, e.g. archaeology).
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