SV: SV: Query: Etymology of sanskrit "aham"/ I

Lars Martin Fosse lmfosse at ONLINE.NO
Wed Nov 10 09:52:11 UTC 1999

Pascale Didier [SMTP:pad at FTO.DE] skrev 10. november 1999 08:14:
> is it possible to date that?  Would it mean that there was no word
> for "I" until this word was overtaken from  Greek?  (i thought , the
> greek word comes from sanskrit)

Greek and Sanskrit have a common origin. This origin may be about 4500 BC,
although we cannot date it exactly. I would suggest that you read an
introduction to comparative linguistics. There are several available, also in
French. You may also want to have a look at Bernard Sergent's book "Les
Indo-Europeens", where you get a bird's eye view of the problems.

Best regards,

Lars Martin Fosse

Dr. art. Lars Martin Fosse
Haugerudvn. 76, Leil. 114,
0674 Oslo
Phone/Fax: +47 22 32 12 19
Email: lmfosse at

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