Is "Sanskrit" Dravidian ?

[Hans Henrich Hock]

Yes, the morphemes in these endings and the morphology that combines the
morphemes in all three languages are inherited from Proto-Indo-European.
The phonetic differences result from regular sound changes applicable in
these phonological contexts.  For a complete cognate word set with these
endings see Skt. yug-a-m : Gk. zug-o-n : Lat. iug-u-m 'yoke'.

For details on these correspondences and the sound changes involved I would
suggest you consult a comparative Indo-European grammar.

abhivaadaye,

Hans Henrich Hock


>Hans Henrich Hock wrote:
>>
>> As they say in the vernacular, "facts is facts".
>>
>
>But as much as the AI theorists might hate to admit it, we are dealing
>with theory here.
>
>Are you really saying that Latin -um, Greek -on and Sanskrit -am are
>related?
>
>I would think better of someone with your credentials (but can excuse
>Lars).
>
>Regards,
>Paul Kekai Manansala