Indo-Aryan Invasion (focussed discussion)

[Vidyasankar Sundaresan]

Vaidix <Vaidix at AOL.COM> wrote -

>
>Intrusion is more probable on the lines of what happened in Americas
when
>local population of red Indians were displaced from their native lands.
>Moreover, the red Indians themselves have learnt the use of arms when
they
>were themselves recruited by some European gangs.  But then,
considering the
>highly developed moral standing of the so called "recent aryan
settlers", the
>illegal acquisition of native lands or massacring of Dravidians and
Dasyus is
>most improbable.  If it is argued that the massacre did inded happen,
then it
>must have happened many thousands of years before the morality on the
basis of
>Dharma is established.

Not to question the moral calibre of our mantra-drashTas, but surely you
must be aware of the .rshi who confesses to having eaten dog-meat in an
extreme circumstance. And admittedly, the people with vision were a
minority among the Vedic population. It is too much to claim that every
Aryan, whether pastoral nomad or settled farmer, had impeccable morals.
Sometimes, as with Asoka, it takes a huge massacre for a moral
conscience to develop. There is also the factor that Europeans settling
in the Americas were highly moral by their own reckoning. Most of them
came with a pretty advanced religion, moral code and the Bible, although
it did not stop them from massacring the natives and owning slaves.

....
>There are other questions as well.  Did anyone look into why in Tamil
there is
>no distinction between k, kh, g and gh?

This is a non-starter, for the most part. The distinction, at least
between k and g exists in Tamil speech, if not in writing. Do not
confuse the script for the language. And Kannada and Telugu, both
Dravidian languages, retain the variations in speech and in script.

Vidyasankar

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