Indo-Aryan invasion

[Lars Martin Fosse]

Jacob wrote:

>Just one observation: my statements Lars responds to in his recent post
>represent counter-arguments I would have raised before the discussion
>with him. In other words, he has managed to some extent to convince me.
>
>Also keep in mind that Lars and me were discussing the relative merit of
>individual arguments, not the overall validity of the various positions.

This is true! We had what you might call a "scenario" debate where the
assumption was that the Aryans left India (in other words, the OoI theory).
My latest posting thus contains just a part of the arguments discussed. But
given Jacob's email, I thought the part I sent would clarify the question
and the argument in a more detailed manner.

By the way, I have one question to the list: I gather from Edwin's posting
that the Iranians used the term Airyanam varsha (=Indic aryavarta) about a
country that was far away from modern Iran (in other words: a land of
origin). I have all my adult life (I think!) been under the impression that
airyanam varsha referred to the area that is covered by modern Iran (+ a few
odd bits and pieces here and there). Could I get some more details about
this, please? (References to the Awesta, etc.)

Best regards,

Lars Martin


Dr.art. Lars Martin Fosse
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