a simple (silly?) question (was Re: Metric Melodies)

[jacob.baltuch at euronet.be]

>What I meant is that there are groups of Nambudiris, on
>the whole a minority, who were traditionally not permitted
>to learn/recite the Vedas.  The explanation given is that
>these groups lost their "purity" at some point in history...
>due to their involvement with medicine and healing, martial
>arts etc.

Yet that subgroup of the Nambudiris are still considered
to be brahmans? In other words the statement that the first
three varnas are permitted to learn the vedas (whereas
shudras are not) is an oversimplification, as in fact there can
be subgroups of the first three varnas who also were not taught
the vedas?