hindu once again
S Krishna
mahadevasiva at hotmail.com
Tue Jun 24 03:07:51 UTC 1997
Irfan Omar writes:
Dear Members of the List:
The word 'hind' is always understood as referring to the region east of
the Indus, that is India. Both in Arabic as well as Persian it has no
derogatory meaning. I am not too familiar with Turkish though. I know of
several Arabs having their last name 'hindi', implying either
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This is what I've been told also. In fact, Ayatollah Khomeini
who wrote his opus in the early part of this century i.e. 30s
signed himself as "Hindi"( belonging to Hind). His ancestors migrated
to Kashmir from Iran and lived for 2 generations.His great grandfather
remigrated to Iran. The family moved around quite a bit in Iran before
Khomeini settled down in Qom. During their travels, his family owned and
ran a garage for some time which was called "Garaaj-e-Hindi"
locally. In this case however, when the Shah tried to discredit him
before his return to Iran, the Savak apparently passed pamphlets
which refered deregatorily to Khomeini as an outsider i.e. Hendi who had
no right to be running IRan. This MAY be the reason why "Hind" may have
had had negative connotations over a short period of time.
Krishna
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