Query: Can this be true?

J. Kingston Cowart jkcowart at io-online.com
Thu Oct 24 19:56:15 UTC 1996

I have been given the following information (but have serious doubts):

1) That both jivata (life) and jivitam (alive)--which are morphologically
almost identical--originally functioned as a past participle of the verb "to

2) That it is therefore possible to regard the Sanskrit for "I live in
Dehli" and "I lived in Dehli" as in some sense the same--at least poetically
if not strictly linguistically.  (It is this about which I have my doubts.)

While the first assertion is evidently correct, the second appears to entail
quite an interpretive stretch even in the imagic/poetic context.  

Can anyone tell me if such an interpretation might indeed be the case
nonetheless; and if so, how so; and if not, why not?

Thank you,

J. Kingston Cowart
San Diego, California
jkcowart at io-online.com

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