kaarikaa

[jonathan.silk at wmich.edu]

I just read A Aklujkar's message in which he said
the reference of 'Aagama'
in  'Aagama-;saastra' is more likely to be the body of Brahmanical and
Buddhist Aagama literature,
-- Do you mean to suggest that aagama appears, for eaxmple, in a Sa.mkhya
text, it might refer to Buddhist Aagamas?  Is there any evidence for this? 
It seems to me l highly unlikely, if for no other reason that (than) that for
non-Buddhists Buddhist texts should *not* be any type of aagama.  IS it not
correct that generally (and perhaps there are exceptions) for Vedic /
Brahmanical / Hindu writers, Buddhist texts -- rejecting as they do the
authority of the Veda -- cannot themselves be any sort of authority?  But
perhaps I have misunderstood AA's point.

-J Silk