Dear list members,

In Thomas Oberlies, , A Grammar of Epic Sanskrit section 10.5 . Pre- and postpositions- the phrase tasyāḥ samīpe tu nalaṁ praśaśaṁsuḥ kutūhalāt from the Nalopākhyānam. (Mahābhārata 3,50,15) is used as an example of an epic form.

I'm not clear why in A Grammar of Epic Sanskrit section 10.5 . Pre- and postpositions- on page 375 genitive + samīpam ~ samīpe is included as an epic form.

In his preface (and footnotes to that preface) Oberlies lists strict criteria for inclusion of a form or construction as epic. (see pages VII and VIII)

In brief

1) Occurs in multiple manuscripts

2)Violates Panini's rules, checked by the usage of the Vedic texts.

3) Attested for the very first time in the epics.

But from Bloomfield's concordance, genitive + samīpe occurs in the Kauśika-sūtra of Atharva-veda 235.9b yo jānāti vayunānāṁ samīpe. I.e. its attested before the epics and as far as I can see genitive + samīpe/samīpam is a completely normal sanskrit form. It is even used in the Kāśikāvṛtti commentary on Aṣṭādhyāyī 2.1.6 as a gloss . . . .|samīpavacane -- kumbhasya samīpam upakumbham | . . . ..

An Indologist (offline) has also pointed me also to 10.5 (16) genitive + sakāśam ~ sakāśe where he points out that sakāśam occurs as a postposition in chāndogyopaniṣad 8.7.2 as a compound prajāpatisakāśam ājagmatuḥ .

Genitive + sakāśa also occurs (from Bloomfield's concordance) at Maitrāyaṇī-saṁhitā 1.2.3 nakṣatrāṇāṁ sakāśān mā yāuṣam . I.e. also attested before the epics.

So I'm also not clear why this also is included as an epic form. It was suggested to me that based on Oberlies introduction to section 10.5 , he might just be saying these forms are particularly popular in the epics.

Thanks,

Harry Spier