Dear David, dear all
I am not very sure about engaging here, but my great appreciation for David and his contributions (as well as his personal kindnesses to me) prompts me to try to correct what I see as a few misunderstandings here.
First, there is a wide variation in not only the quality but also the approach to translations into Chinese from, let us say for ease of conversation, Sanskrit. From a Chinese perspective, the use of the word "literary" is incautious; I think there is probably close to nothing translated into Chinese of Buddhist literature which was considered literary (yes, I know, one could argue a few cases, but on the whole this is true, I believe). But let us assume for the moment that there is a good distinction between "literal" and "literary" (which I think there is not): the distinction between Tibetan and Chinese translations is in any case not of this type, and one main reason is that, contrary to the 'evidence' of one modern Tibetan, we have almost no idea how contemporary readers understood their texts. BUT wait, we actually do have at least one way of seeking this out: I have been working recently on a corpus of materials translated from Chinese into Tibetan, mostly but not exclusively in Dunhuang. And guess what: when the Tibetan readers recorded in Tibetan their understanding of the Chinese translations, it comes out looking every bit as "precise" and "literal" as the translations from Sanskrit. So something is a bit wrong with this picture.
I am not going to go into the issue of royal decrees here, but I would suggest that there is much more of the political here than there is concern with fidelity, or better, that these are deeply intertwined.
I confess to finding it a bit difficult to understand the claim that Buddhism did not flourish in China. I had to read the paragraph several times (even without parentheses!) to discover that this is indeed the intended meaning. But by almost any measure, this is clearly simply wrong (not to mention that, uh, it ignores the deep Tibetan debt to China for part of its own Buddhist traditions...). The rest of that paragraph would require a bit of unpacking; I think I know what it means, and I disagree with it, but I might be wrong, so I'll leave it aside.
As for the last paragraph, please refer to what I wrote above about the Tibetan translations from Chinese, first of all, but second of all: the more we learn about Indian Buddhist texts, the more we learn that --at least as far as scriptures are concerned, and it might be somewhat different in the case of śāstras-- the fluidity of vocabulary, even technical vocabulary, is much greater than we might expect (1), and since there is virtually no case in which we know exactly which Sanskrit text served as the Vorlage for a Tibetan translation, we simply cannot know what they were attempting to render in any given case (of course there are patterns, but again, even with śāstras, fluidity exists) (2).
So in all, I think that we need to seriously reconsider the model David offers here.
None of this however is really relevant to the question of parentheses in translations--apologies for the rant!
David, please don't take this as in any way ad hominem--it is not meant that way in the least!!
Very best, Jonathan