A few points to ponder in this connection;

1. The word 'divine' used in the talk, seems to have IE connection with the Vedic word 'div'. What is the biblical Hebrew word kept in mind here? How does that word compare with the Greek (?) 'divine'(?)

2. Greek 'divine' (?) might have had to do with the polytheistic divine realm of the Greek worldview or it might just mean 'not man-made' (The latter view connects well with the idea of 'natural law' of the Greeks that is known to have travelled into Theology and Hegelian and other modern philosophies.)

3. What is the biblical Hebrew word for 'law' kept in mind here? How does it compare with the Greek word for 'law'?

4. On the Vedic side, whether Rta was viewed as essentially  a 'div' or aadhidaivika entity or not is what relates to your question. But that Rta was viewed as 'not man made' but as the one that IS THERE, is settled 'naturally' is evident from both the yougika, rooDha (Veda prayOgAdhArita) meanings of the word is evident from its use in the Veda.

5. That Dharma was also taken as not man-made and that books codifying Dharma also claimed to be articulating the 'non-man-made' Dharma is also well known.

6. Rta- Dharma, Rta- Satya relations etc. are all already widely discussed in ancient Sanskrit and modern Indological literature.

7. Your current interest Mahabharata has huge repeated discussions on these. In Udyogaparva, Krishna clearly says Dharma and Satya can restore themselves (are restored by Daiva ) irrespective of whether those competent to alleviate the damage to them, carry out that responsibility or not.

8. Bhartrihari says in vAkyapadIyam that all beings know Dharma by intuition.  



On Tue, Dec 6, 2016 at 10:15 AM, Nagaraj Paturi <nagarajpaturi@gmail.com> wrote:
Books on r̥ta should also be useful.

Heckaman, C. (1979). Toward a Comprehensive Understanding of Rta in the Rg Veda. Master's Thesis: McMaster University.

Ramakrishna, G. (1965). "Origin and Growth of the Concept of Ṛta in Vedic Literature". Doctoral Dissertation: University of Mysore.

Premnath, D. N. (1994). "The Concepts of Ṛta and Maat: A Study in Comparison" in: Biblical Interpretation: A Journal of Contemporary Approaches, Volume 2, Number 3, pp. 325–339.

On Tue, Dec 6, 2016 at 9:48 AM, Nagaraj Paturi <nagarajpaturi@gmail.com> wrote:
DHARMA — Studies in its Semantic, Cultural and Religious History: Edited by Patrick Olivelle;

On Tue, Dec 6, 2016 at 2:22 AM, Howard Resnick <hr@ivs.edu> wrote:
In the following lecture at Harvard Divinity, https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2FL-RQpbYiQ we find the claim that the notion of divine law originates in ancient Greek and Jewish traditions, with the following difference:

Greeks traced the divinity of divine law to its intrinsic objectivy, universality, and immutability.

Jewish law claims that divine law is divine because it expresses the will of God.

My question: do we find a clear notion of divine law in, say, the Rg Veda? If so, how does it compare with the two notions cited above? And how does it evolve or transform over time?

Thanks!
Howard

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--
Nagaraj Paturi
 
Hyderabad, Telangana, INDIA.
 
Former Senior Professor of Cultural Studies
 
FLAME School of Communication and FLAME School of  Liberal Education,
 
(Pune, Maharashtra, INDIA )
 
 
 



--
Nagaraj Paturi
 
Hyderabad, Telangana, INDIA.
 
Former Senior Professor of Cultural Studies
 
FLAME School of Communication and FLAME School of  Liberal Education,
 
(Pune, Maharashtra, INDIA )
 
 
 



--
Nagaraj Paturi
 
Hyderabad, Telangana, INDIA.
 
Former Senior Professor of Cultural Studies
 
FLAME School of Communication and FLAME School of  Liberal Education,
 
(Pune, Maharashtra, INDIA )