Dear Dominik,
This is improbable. The additional anusvaras occur far too often and also in manuscripts that are very carefully written. I once toyed with the idea that this reflects the actual pronunciation in a certain area in a certain time, that is, that vowels before nasals were nasalized. I never found any evidence for such an assumption.
Best wishes,
Eli


Sent from my iPad

On 10.06.2014, at 08:36, Dominik Wujastyk <wujastyk@gmail.com> wrote:

Without evidence to the contrary, I would normally put this down to scribal carelessness.

Dominik Wujastyk


On 9 June 2014 17:56, <jacob@fabularasa.dk> wrote:
Dear list,

I wonder if anyone could explain the occurence in some Sanskrit manuscripts (possibly influenced by vernacularisms) of adding an anusvara before a nasal. I have attached three examples containing the following readings:

Ex. 1: तंन् (तंम् before sandhi)
Ex. 2: महाश्मशांने
Ex. 3: दांन

Any suggestions or clarifications would be greatly appreciated.

Kind regards,
Jacob

Jacob Schmidt-Madsen
Assistant Teacher
Department of Indology
University of Copenhagen
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