[INDOLOGY] hann iti han

[John Lowe]

Dear wise Sanskritists,

In the Ṛgveda padapātha the word han, 3sg injunctive of the root han, is marked with parigṛhya at the end of a verse. This occurs at 5.29.4d, 5.32.1d, and 10.99.6d. At 6.47.2d there is no parigṛhya, and here hán has udātta (vs. anudātta in the other three passages).

Can anyone explain why this happens? This is not one of the uses of parigṛhya that I am familiar with, such as for kaḥ = kar at verse end, where it has an obvious disambiguating function. This does not happen with all anudātta monosyllabic words ending in -n, as e.g. vran at 5.29.12d, and I can't see what it would be disambiguating anyway.

Thanks for any answers received! Best wishes
John


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