[INDOLOGY] Grammar question

[Harry Spier]

Macdonell in his grammar section 211 on the infinitive says:
... It differs from the dative of an ordinary verbal noun solely in
governing its object in the accusative. instead of the genetive.  .. . .
It preserves its original accusative sense inasmuch as it is used as the
direct object of verbs.   .  . .

but then he goes on to say

. . . The construction of the accusative with the infinitive is unknown to
Sanskrit, its place being supplied, with verbs of saying, etc., by oration
recta with iti . . . .

I'm unclear what he means by "The construction of the acc. with the
infinitive is unknown to Sanskrit". when in the first part of this section
he describes its   its accusative sense and use as the direct object of
verbs.

 Is he saying that an infinitive can be used as a direct object of verbs
except for verbs of saying etc. or something broader?

Thanks,
Harry Spier


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