[INDOLOGY] Greek accent

[Madhav Deshpande]

Someone asked me if Greek verb accent has the prosodic loss of accent, if
it comes after a non-verb, like the Sanskrit verb accent [cf. Pāṇini: तिङ्
अतिङ:]?  I have only secondary knowledge about Greek, and could not answer
this question.  Hope someone can clarify this issue to me.  Best,

Madhav M. Deshpande
Professor Emeritus, Sanskrit and Linguistics
University of Michigan, Ann Arbor, Michigan, USA
Senior Fellow, Oxford Center for Hindu Studies

[Residence: Campbell, California, USA]


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