Question on Marathi phonology

[srutavega]

priya sahaaya,
bhavatpra´snasyottaram atisaralataram daatu.m ´sakyata aavartayitu.h
nairuktikako´sodde´sanena: udaah.rtatvena CDIAL 345b (6065) iti ka.n.dikaam
apek.sya CDIAL 346 (6079) d.r´syataam. tata.h spa.s.ta.m bhavi.syati yad
°.t° iti agho.saspar´salak.sito 'karmako maraa.thiiyo dhaatu.h praak.rtasya
°.t.ta° (tu.t.taiityaadi) uta sa.mskr.tasya .tyaantabhaavadhaatau
(tru.tyatiityaadi) udapaadi, para.m tu °.d° iti gho.saspar´salak.sita.h
sakarmako .nica (tro.tayatiityaadi > to.deiityaadi) aanetavya.h.
grai.smabhadraa´si.sa aa´saasaana.h saadhayati ´srutavega.h.

> -----Ursprüngliche Nachricht-----
> Von: Indology [mailto:INDOLOGY at liverpool.ac.uk]Im Auftrag von Madhav
> Deshpande
> Gesendet am: Sonntag, 22. August 2004 13.20
> An: INDOLOGY at liverpool.ac.uk
> Betreff: Re: Question on Marathi phonology
>
> In Marathi, an Indo-Aryan language, we find pairs of verbs like:
>
> tuT = to break (intransitive)
> toD = to break (transitive)
> phuT = to break (intransitive)
> phoD = to break (transitive)
>
> Is there any explanation of the voicing in the transitive verbs
> vs lack of voicing in the intransitive verbs?  In the Sanskrit
> antecedents of these verbs, the vowel of the intransitive verbs
> remains unaccented, while the vowel of the transitive verbs is
> accented.  It is well understood that the accents are related to
> the u/o alternation, but what might lead to voicing?  The
> voiced/voiceless alternation is not seen in Sanskrit in the same
> environment.  Any suggestions?
>
> Madhav Deshpande
>