Sanscrit?
Swaminathan Madhuresan
smadhuresan at YAHOO.COM
Tue Dec 5 14:24:19 UTC 2000
Andr� Signoret <sanskrit at CLUB-INTERNET.FR> wrote:
<<<
Most European citizens speak with "Sanskrit" roots and are unaware of that.
"Monsieur Jourdain aussi faisait de la prose sans le savoir !".
Almost every time you pronounce , say, French or German, or Russian words,
you utter sanscritic phonemes. But alas one thing is missing : le "sens
critique" (sorry for the pun !).
>>>
As Dr. Fosse explained, nowadays Europeans are not "Aryans", and that
19th century usage is replaced with Indo-European (In Germany,
Indo-German) (in scholarly writing, atleast). Along the same lines,
Signoret means Indo-European wherever he puts Sanscrit, is it not?
The French generally do not use Indo-German. I understand that
tripartite scheme of Sanscrut and European languages is done
most in France. Is it the grounding in Classics (Greek/Latin)
leading to these claims as Hinduism, Yoga, etc., are IE?
Regards,
SM
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