Rg Veda etc.
xacobad at WILNETONLINE.NET
Fri Nov 26 05:25:58 UTC 1999
I read the Contribution with great interest. I am no historian, but I
get the impression that the contributor has a clear Sangh-Parivar aim of
rewriting history and uses data to do the same.
I wonder why the contributor has not used any linguistic data. The
similarity between the Indo-Aryan and the Iranian is explained away with
reverse migration theory. But nothing is said about the vestiges of
Dravidian languages in North-West India, namely in Afghanistan (Brahui),
North-East and Northern Indian tribal dialects of Dravidian family. The
earlier explanation of migration into India of the so called Aryans and
pushing the Dravidians to hilly areas of North-West, North-East and South
seem to make more sense.
Could the contributor try to explain this?
From: Sergei Schmalz <schms060 at MAIL.UNI-MAINZ.DE>
To: INDOLOGY at LISTSERV.LIV.AC.UK <INDOLOGY at LISTSERV.LIV.AC.UK>
Date: Friday, November 26, 1999 5:39 AM
Subject: Rg Veda etc.
> Any comments?
>With best wishes,
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