Rg Veda etc.

[Francis]

    I read the Contribution with great interest.  I am no historian, but I
get the impression that the contributor has a clear Sangh-Parivar aim of
rewriting history and uses data to do the same.
    I wonder why the contributor has not used any linguistic data.  The
similarity between the Indo-Aryan and the Iranian is explained away with
reverse migration theory.  But nothing is said about the vestiges of
Dravidian languages in North-West India, namely in Afghanistan (Brahui),
North-East and Northern Indian tribal dialects of Dravidian family.  The
earlier explanation of migration into India of the so called Aryans and
pushing the Dravidians to hilly areas of North-West, North-East and South
seem to make more sense.
    Could the contributor try to explain this?
Parmar, F.G.
-----Original Message-----
From: Sergei Schmalz <schms060 at MAIL.UNI-MAINZ.DE>
To: INDOLOGY at LISTSERV.LIV.AC.UK <INDOLOGY at LISTSERV.LIV.AC.UK>
Date: Friday, November 26, 1999 5:39 AM
Subject: Rg Veda etc.


>http://www.itihaas.com/ancient/contrib1.html
>
>        Any comments?
>
>With best wishes,
>Sergei Schmalz.