Pronunciation of word final "a" in sanskrit

[N. Ganesan]

Let us take, for instance, "gaNezvara".
Tamil naturalizes it as "gaNezvaran" (to be exact, "kaNEcuvaran").
In the IA area, it is "gaNezvar".

So:
Does the "iizvara" becoming "iizvar" in North India due to the
disappearance of word-final "a" sound in Sanskrit?
At the same time, in South India, "iizvara" is naturalized as
"iizvaran". May be beacuse, southerners perceived the word-final
"a" in Sanskrit as full "a".

Comments welcome.



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