Pronunciation of word final "a" in sanskrit

N. Ganesan naga_ganesan at HOTMAIL.COM
Wed May 26 13:14:26 UTC 1999

Let us take, for instance, "gaNezvara".
Tamil naturalizes it as "gaNezvaran" (to be exact, "kaNEcuvaran").
In the IA area, it is "gaNezvar".

Does the "iizvara" becoming "iizvar" in North India due to the
disappearance of word-final "a" sound in Sanskrit?
At the same time, in South India, "iizvara" is naturalized as
"iizvaran". May be beacuse, southerners perceived the word-final
"a" in Sanskrit as full "a".

Comments welcome.

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