Book review: Indus Age- the Writing System by GregoryL.Possehl.

[N. Ganesan]

Shanka writes:
<<<Ganeshan,
Please do prvide concrete evidence for Mr Thompson's dating of the Rg
Veda. A simple 'he says so' is inadmissible. ..>>>

Unable to oblige your request as I simply wrote my understanding
of what I read in Indology. Here is the exact wordings of
Prof. Thompson on 18 oct 98:
"Second, what is "the Vedic period", and where was it located [the
focus of this extended thread, after all]? As far as I can tell,
there is no significant gap between attested Scythian at the 8th cent
BCE and the language of RV. What? Perhaps a couple of centuries?
How old exactly is RV 8.46? And where was it composed? In my view,
early Vedic, and in particular RV book 8, is better understood as
the product of an Indo-Iranian culture, rather than as a strictly
Indic one. I have made this assertion repeatedly on this list."

What is the date of Rigveda? 3000 B.C. written in Harappa???
Do you have any concrete evidence to disprove Prof. Thompson?

I also scanned thru' J. Lesley Fitton, The discovery of the Greek
bronze age. Harvard UP, 1996. Astoninshingly, the vast Greek
texts do not speak of Crete and Mycenae either. These cities have been
found only recently. Why does it become inadmissible among the
Indian powerful & mighty elites that 'Aryans, speaking a language akin
to Old Iranian, entered India like what Indo-Europeans have
done all over the world?' Example: Celts, Hittites, Greeks.

Let me also quote Prof. Witzel, Harvard university,
+Substrates exist anywhere in the world, except before the
+Americas and Polynesia were first populated, comparatively
+recently. E.g., Europe is full of substrates and no one denies or
+deplores that. So why should it be different in South Asia? No one
+ *ever* entered ?

N. Ganesan






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