Pythagoras mentioned in Vedas?

Bo Klintberg klintber at CHASS.UTORONTO.CA
Mon Jun 14 21:22:42 UTC 1999

On Mon, 14 Jun 1999, Lars Martin Fosse wrote:

> Interesting. I find it quite possible that a 3rd century Greek visited India
> (after all, this is the epoch of Alexander, Megasthenes and other fartravelling
> Greeks). It is much less likely that a 6th century Greek did the same.

As usual, you are applying statistics the wrong way. Why do you keep
doing that? What <practical use> is there for us to read your
"conclusions" that a John Doe of 6th century B.C. is less likely to have
gone to India than a 3rd century one? People who <do> travel are not John
Does--they are <real people>. They live their lives without any thoughts
about social statistics. I don't see that you have any arguments
that would prevent one <specific> scientist or even a group of <specific>
scientists going between India and Greece in 600 BC, in 700 BC, in 800 BC,
in 900 BC, in 1000 BC, etc, etc. Unless, of course, you think that the
Indians were chimpanzees at the the time of 1000 BC or something, and that
they only became humans later. If that is what you say, then I say to you:
Prove it!

Bo Klintberg
Institute for the History and Philosophy of Science and Technology
University of Toronto

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