"Hindu writer who lives in New York"

[Ashish Chandra]

I wonder if "a Hindu writer who lives in New York" has the same ring to it
as Mr. So and So, professor of Theology, or Dr. So and So of Pathology etc.
What qualification is " a Hindu writer" ? Is it the same as Russell Baker,
the White columnist, or Mr. A.M. Rosenthal, the Jewish writer ? Are we to
assume that the article is impartial just because it has been written by a
"Hindu writer" ? Probably just the same as Mr. Rosenthal writing on Saddam
Hussein. Or is it ?

Am I being picky here ?

Ashish Chandra

-----Original Message-----
From:   Michael Rabe [SMTP:mrabe at ARTIC.EDU]
Sent:   Monday, January 11, 1999 4:04 AM
To:     INDOLOGY at LISTSERV.LIV.AC.UK
Subject:        90:98 vs 56:64-97

Editorial in today's New York Times, by "a Hindu writer who lives in New
York,"  and forwarded, FYI, on grounds of the Academic Fair Use, enshrined
in US Law:

January 11, 1999
              India Steps Up Anti-Christian Violence
              By TUNKA VARADARAJAN
[http://www.nytimes.com/yr/mo/day/oped/11tunk.html]
[...deleted]