Akkadian in IVC

[N. Ganesan]

>>Looking at Tikkanen's retroflexion map, the retroflexion is
>>in the direction of Northwest to the South, and NOT from
>>Northwest to the East. If originally Indus language had
>>retroflexes, does Tikkanen's findings give a clue to
>>the original (northern) Indus language?

<
The short answer is, I don't know.  However I suspect that the Indus
language has strong links to Sumerian and also Austronesian.  Have you
also seen Malati Shendge's recent book "The Language of the
Harrapans".  She has the interesting theory that there was also a
strong Akkadian influence on this language which was taken over into
the language of the Rg Veda.  In particular she draws attention to the
names of the various Asuras which she links to Akkadian names.  She
also believes that Asura is linked via Asur to the Assyrians.
Probably very contentious but still worth a look.
>

A minor problem with Malati Shendge's theory/comparisons of Sanskrit
with Akkadian is that she does not know tamil(dravidian). Nor Munda.

Retroflexion's likely source all over India is Dravidian, acc. to
many scholars. The only sure way to "kill" drav. retroflexion origins
is to compile a list of all words from North India (texts, geography)
and let *Dravidian* experts analyze them. Let them publish these are
or not from Dravidian influence.

BTW, I browsed your book, The Tibetan oracle: ancient wisdom
for every day guidance.

Regards,
N. Ganesan

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