Paired Horse and PIE breakup

N. Ganesan naga_ganesan at HOTMAIL.COM
Tue Nov 3 22:12:36 UTC 1998


>The big problem is that the spread of ritual or technology doesn't
>necessarily coincide with mass migrations of people. Take, for example,
>the presence of Islam in Indonesia, or Tibetan Buddhism in the United
>States.

    Never said mass migration of people. Books say IE were 10%
    and natives 90%. Let us reduce it further: 5% and 95%.

    Without a core of people these things won't travel.
    This is true even today when a multitude of technologies
    available to spread the message. But in those days???
    Horse sacrifice rituals match in many specific details
    that it is highly unlikely that they diffused from India to Rome
    intact.

    Islam spread to Southeast Asia because of the growth in Arab
    sea-borne trade/traders. Before Muslims, Indian traders, mainly from
    the South and East India took their religions,first Hinduism and
    then Buddhism to Southeast Asia.

    D. T. Suzuki, his guru established Zen first. Have seen
    Dalai Lama touring USA. After 1959, a need was felt to
    study Tibetan buddhism. watched little buddha movie,
    Richard Gere, ... A core group of trained Lamas are working
    for Tibetan Buddhism in US.

>Let's consider the cuneiform inscriptions of Persia.  Are these part of
>the same migrations that brought the Vedic peoples to India?  If so,
>why don't they have a script similar to that used with Sanskrit?  Did
>they ever have such a script?

     In India, writing came much later (after Asoka). This is true
     for today's scripts barring IVC writing. Vedas
     were transmitted orally for many centuries and committed to
     writing much later. Indo-Iranian movements happened
     one thousand years before.

>If we accept that the Ashokan and related scripts came from the
>"Middle East" and are related to Phoenician-type scripts, how did these
>vault over to India and when?  And if Vedic peoples came from Ural and
>Caucasus mountain region (or the Caspian-Aral one) how did they come
>about using a phonetic script rather than cuneiform (given a lower
>limit of 2000 BCE for the PIE breakup).

     IA movements and writing are vastly separated in time.

Regards,
N. Ganesan




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