Indo-Aryan invasion

[Paul (Kekai) Manansala]

On Sun, 1 Mar 1998, Edwin Bryant wrote:

>
> I'd also like to know how the "out of India"
> > model deals with the relationship between Old Indic and Old Iranian.
>
> You've brought this up several times.  What would prevent an
> "out-of-India" model arguing that PIE developed into the various languages
> which departed from the far NW of the South Asian subcontinent, and that
> Iranian was the last to go?  The Avesta does refer to an external ' Aryana
> vaejam' (unlike the Veda which retains no mention of a foreign origin at
> all).  Gnoli finds reason to suppose this is in the Hindu Kush, since the
> geographical horizons of the Avest are all Eastern (there is no ref. to
> the West).  Boyce differs, deferring to the standard Caspian sea origin.
> but there is precious little in the Avesta to help us determine where this
> place was except that the climate seems to have been severe.
>

The Airyana Vaejah was described as mountainous country in which was
located the river Daitya.  Interestingly, Daitya is the name of
an "aboriginal" people in the Vedas.

A lot of focus in this argument is placed on identifying the soma
or haoma of the Rgveda and Avesta. Most strongly deny that the soma
used in modern brahmin rituals is the same as the Vedic soma.  Indian
sources state that soma comes from Mujavant or Mujavat.  There is
a Mount Mujavant in the Himalayas.  However, there are numerous other
theories on the origin of soma.

Regards,
Paul Kekai Manansala