sns at IX.NETCOM.COM
Sat Feb 21 16:00:04 UTC 1998
It seems to me that there are contradictions here in the various
postings by linguistic scholars.
Dr. R.J. Zydenbos categorically states that there is
no similiarity between North Indian and South Indian Languages.
Dr. Bh. Krishnamurti states "The other kind, like Subrahmanya in
the list, mistake aspects of convergence between languages through
contact as genetic phenomena. They have basically no idea
of how genetic relationships are established among languages"
thereby implying that there are aspects of convergence.
Mr.Jacob Baltuch writes:
"In fact, by all serious scholars, the presence of Sanskrit
words in Mitanni and Hittite documents is *precisely* our most
solid basis for
declaring that Sanskrit *did* already exist in 1500 BC. "
And there are other experts who say that the language of the
vedas cannot even be called as Sanskrit and has to be termed as
Please explain to me as to who among all these is correct.
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