The Aryans (again); 19th century discourse.

[N. Ganesan]

Mr. Paul K. Manansala wrote:
*        In Talageri's letter, he claimed that the Hindutva side
*did not hold the
*position that Indo-European languages originated in India. Does anyone
*know where they do believe IE came from?

Mr. Ashish Chandra wrote:
$If you mean the IE languages, there is a belief that language itself
grew
$because of peoples' interactions and not because there was some
commonality
$of stock. As for IE people, the RgVedic people (wrongly referred to as
$being Aryans) were the original inhabitants of the land around
Sarasvati
$river. Where di they come from, no one knows. But there was certainly
no
$move from Europe or Caspian Sea into the land of the seven rivers.

$Just like N.Ganesan, I am adamantly holding on to the view that Aryan
means
$noble and that it does not refer to race. The Vedic people are our
$ancestors and I will never believe that Indians came from anywhere but
the
$Sarasvati region. Call me Hindutvavadi or whatever.

  Mr. P. K. Manansala, often times, writes in Indology about
  the need to realize that materials, culture, religion, language
  travel/diffuse without movement of people.

  Indigenous Aryan schoolers like Mr. A. Chandra extend that
  to extremes.

  Establishment of English in India required British in
  good numbers for 2 centuries+. Not as low stature immigrants.
  But as the colonizing, imperialistic, all-powerful rulers.
  This happened with  the help modern secular education for all,
  tremendous improvements in communications (eg., rail roads),
  publishing, printing, literacy & so on.

  In the Rig veda, Aryans and horses go together hand in hand.
  Also, note that No horse bones before 1700 BC in Indus valley and
  no horses in 4000 Indus seals. It still has to be explained
  how Sanskrit was borrowed wholesale "because of peoples'
  interactions". In the late bronze age, how Sanskrit was borrowed
  from outside without people moving in and spread to the
  whole of India. In those days, there were less roads, no
  modern technolgy, less communication methods.

  Any examples in the world around 1500 BC (or 4000 BC,
  if Indigenous Aryans insist) where a language spread
  without "elite dominance" in preliterate late bronze
  age societies? In preliterate communities?

  I know how Spanish language spreads in Latin America.

  120 years of academic research in India and the West has
  established that Aryans and Sanskrit entered India
  around 1500 BC.

  Sri. Iravatham Mahadevan IAS (Retd.), is a pioneer in reading
  Tamil Brahmi inscriptions and reading the Indus script
  as a Dravidian language. He and his forefathers kne/ow
  Sanskrit very well. He writes that many of the descendants
  the Indus people, most likely Dravidian speakers and
  the Vedic Aryans entering Indus valley are in Pakistan today.

  Mr. A. Chandra writes: "the RgVedic people (wrongly referred
  to as being Aryans)"

  HOW?

  Regards,
  N. Ganesan

  To Mr. Chandra: FYI, I collected  a bibliography of about
  17000 Western languages publications on (South) India and on about
  70000 Tamil books. I write to Indology where Professors
  whose works I love to read interact and inform me.
  My writings are not intended  to any alt.culture(?)... newsgroups
  where kids in 20s whose native language C++ write/fight
  and HindutvavAdins are pretty active.

  Still waiting to be enlightened on what views N. Ganesan
  adamantly holding.

  Regards
  N. Ganesan




______________________________________________________
Get Your Private, Free Email at http://www.hotmail.com