Some comments on the SaDja discussion

[Sudalaimuthu Palaniappan]

In a message dated 97-10-03 14:56:20 EDT, you write:

<< ShaDja as the fourth note has to do with the NAradIyas'ikShA's
 identification of the notes of the (sAma) vaidika scale and the
 laukika (secular) scale.  The vaidika scale is usually thought
 of as a descending scale... the NAradIyas'ikShA first equates
 the prathama of sAmagAna with madhyama... descending down the
 scale, you get ShaDja of the laukika scale as the caturtha or
 4th note of sAmagAna. >>

Based on the discussion in the list and some more research, I have also come
to the conclusion that one cannot really explain the etymology of SaDja.  I
think the author of NAradIya zikSA was simply trying to explain the Sama
Vedic svaras in terms of the svaras of the secular or laukika music existing
at that time. As Lewis Rowell notes (p. 85), "The author of nAradIya zikSA
was neither a towering intellect nor a brilliant innovator, but he too was
trying to sort out what he heard.....But his equations sowed massive
confusion for subsequent authors, whose general reaction was to endorse
NArada's statements without fully understanding the original terms of
reference, and some of this confusion is still evident in Indian scholarship
today."

Wayne Howard who studied sAma Vedic chants in exhaustive detail says the
following, "The present study, in which all of the known styles of
sAman-singing are discussed, proves conclusively that the SAmavedic concept
of svara is much broader than believed by Burnell, Faddegon, and the rest. A
central point which is made in forthcoming chapters is that the word "svara"
implies a musical phrase or motive-- not necessarily only a single isolated
tone. The matter was stated to me simply and directly by ZrI M. Itti Ravi
NambUdiri (pAJJal village, Trichur [TRzzivaperUr] District, Kerala), the
principal living exponent of a style of singing which may represent SAmavedic
chant in its purest form:
    You must remember that the word"svara" we use is not the svara of the
sapta-svaras [the seven tones of the secular scale]. We mean the movement or
vibration of sound. {In describing this] we use the word "iLakkam", which
means "movement"."

He also says that "the words of the source verses may undergo any one of a
number of alterations. These changes are necessary so that text can be
adapted more conveniently to melody--evidence which strongly suggests that
the melodies were pre-existent." (p.10-11) Lewis Rowell also agrees with
this.

This suggests to me that the melodies existed before sAma gAna. There is no
clear connection between the origin of the secular music tradition and sAma
gAna tradition. But then why are many scholars trying to trace the origin of
Indian classical music to sAma gAna?  Am I missing something?

Regards

S. Palaniappan