`Conversational Sanskrit' vs `Real Sanskrit'
vidynath at math.ohio-state.edu
Wed Apr 16 02:37:19 UTC 1997
zydenbos at flevoland.xs4all.nl (Robert Zydenbos) wrote:
> It is possible (or likely?) that a parallel, though certainly not cognate,
> construction in the Dravidian languages has contributed to the popularity of
> -tavant, namely the combination of a relative participle with a pronominal
> ending. E.g.: Kannada maa.dida-, or Tamil ceyta-, is the past relative
> participle which means "having done" or "which / who did" (I am now slightly
> simplifying the matter), and Ka. maa.didavanu, Ta. ceytava_n, with the
> suffixes -vanu and -va_n, mean "he who did", which would be suitably
> translated into Sanskrit as k.rtavaan.
I don't know Kannada. But in colloquial Tamil, the past tense is not
expressed using participle like forms. The typical formation would be
``vii.t.tukku ppo_n~e'' and not ``vii.t.tukku po_nav~a n~aa''
[~ preceding a vowel indicates nasalization, and corresponds to a
word-final _n following in formal Tamil.] Participles are used in place
of relative claueses and to put emphasis on the subject, but not, AFAIK,
as the typical means of expressing the past tense.
More information about the INDOLOGY