Diffusion of Sanskrit

Vidhyanath Rao vidynath at math.ohio-state.edu
Wed Nov 20 17:55:08 UTC 1996

> [...] in particular (Meadow 1991 below).  In the chapter which John
> Lukacs worked on, there is an unequivocal assertion of significant
> population changes in the centuries prior to 800 B.C.

In `Indo-Aryans of Ancient South Asia', K. A. R. Kennedy writes (pp 49--54)
``Evidence of demographic discontinuities is present in our study, but the
first occurs between 6000 and 4500 B.C (a seperation between the Neolithic
and Chalcolithic populations of Mehrgarh) and the second is >after 800 B.C.,
the discontinuity being between the peoples of Harappa, Chalcolithic Mehrgarh
and post-Harrapan Timargarha on the one hand and the late Bronze Age and
early Iron Age inhabitants of Sarai Khola on the other. ''

This is the problem I have with much of the discussions on this topic.
Whom do I believe? Did the population change (actually change in the
cranioetric data) occur before or after 800 BC? (now add the fact that
change in cranioetric data can occur due to causes other than population

When I take the trouble to check some of the ``data'' presented, I come
across troubling inconsistencies which the debaters want to ignore
and fail to answer the questions. (which is why I am not participating
in sci.archaeology debate. Usenet is awful in this regard.)

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