None

[thompson at handel.jlc.net]

Re the remarks of Lance Cousins:
"That is the problem. We do have solid evidence for the presence of notions
of reincarnation in Greece from the early sixth century B.C. with
Pheracydes of Syros and then Pythagoras. Given that it is now doubtful that
the Upanishads can be dated so early, the presumption must surely be that,
if there was influence, it was from Greece to India rather than the
converse."

The later dating of the UpaniSads is irrelevant if it can be shown (1) that
notions of reincarnation existed already in the RV [and I think it can be],
*or* (2) if it can be shown that notions of reincarnation are documented in
widely divergent IE traditions [and it has been shown].

In my view, reincarnation is one of those cases where borrowing or
influence is unlikely, in either direction.

Sincerely,
GT